Dear Parents,
Last week I wrote that Abraham's faith would not have been the same as the theological virtue of faith (since the sacraments are the ordinary means of receiving sanctifying grace). A parent wrote and asked for clarification and I started digging. The more I dug, the more conflicted I became so I reached out to an expert: Fr. Dominic Langevin, O.P., who is up at the Dominican House of Studies and sometimes appears in Thomistic Institute videos. I was quite mistaken, and here is his response:
The theological virtues and sanctifying grace go together (Prima secundae somewhere). When one receives sanctifying grace, one also receives the theological virtues. Sanctifying grace can be received outside of the sacraments, whenever God justifies a person (I-II, q. 113 or 114). Whether a person is in sanctifying grace is usually known only to God.
Abraham had both sanctifying grace and the theological virtue of faith. I may not be able to find an easy clincher quote quickly enough, but, basically, if one has sanctifying grace or the theological virtue of faith, the other dynamic is involved too. Plus lots of other things, e.g., justification (the forgiveness of sins), the other theological virtues, the gifts of the Holy Spirit.
For Abraham, the "shade" of sanctifying grace would not yet have been Christological in fact, though it would have been Christological in anticipation. His faith would have been in the Christ to come rather than in the Christ who has already come.
Aquinas speaks about Abraham (or the saints of the OT) with respect to these matters. For instance, in his Roman Commentary, see the commentary on Romans 4. Part of paragraph 340 says: "For Genesis reports that faith was reckoned to Abraham as justice (Gen 15:6), but the fact of receiving circumcision is not recorded until Genesis (17:23 et seq.). Therefore, if Abraham, still uncircumcised, was justified by faith, it is plain that the justice of faith, through which sins are forgiven gratis, occurs not only in circumcision but also in uncircumcision, i.e., in gentiles."
The general idea of justifying grace in the OT is in the Summa theologiae I-II, q. 100, a. 11: "Whether the moral precepts of the Old Law justified man?" Another good indication is ST, II-II, q. 2, a. 7: "Whether it is necessary for the salvation of all to believe explicitly in the mystery of Christ?" Aquinas doesn't talk about Abraham explicitly there, but he does talk about how faith could be possessed in the OT. Abraham would be a classic, Scripturally-affirmed example of such a person.